SKELETAL SYSTEM

By Oba Mike

 

Instruction: Practice without the answers first

 

1. Which of the following statements best describe the skeletal system?

A. All the bones in the human body.

B. All the muscles and tendons

C. All the organs, both soft and hard tissues

D. All the bones in the body and the tissues that connect them.

 

2. One of these protect the brain:

A. Calcium

B. Cranium

C. Cerebellum

D. Cerebrum

 

3. Besides the brain, the skull also protects:

A. Sense organs

B. Lungs

C. Spinal cord

D. Diaphragm

 

4. The purpose of the ribcage is to:

A. Protect the heart and lungs

B. Protect the ribs and sternum

C. Provide attachment for the lungs

D. Protect the sternum.

 

5. Acromioclavicular joint is formed between:

A. Clavicle and scapula

B. Clavicle and sternum

C. Clavicle and first rib

D. Clavicle and atlas

 

6. The term, "osteiod" refers to:

A. Bone matrix laid by osteoblasts

B. Bone extracellular substance

C. Uncalcified bone matrix

D. Hardened bone matrix

 

7. The joint between the femur and tibia is?

A. Hinge joint

B. Ball and socket joint

C. Pivot joint

D. Gliding joint

 

8. The paired bones of the skull include:

A. Frontal bone, parietal bone and temporal bone.

B. Temporal bone, parietal bone, and sphenoid bone

C. Temporal bone, parietal bone and maxilla

D. Temporal bone, parietal bone and mandible.

 

9. Which of these statements is true?

A. An adult skeleton has 20 vertebrae grouped into five different types.

B. An adult skeleton has 20 vertebrae grouped into 5 different types

C. The clavicle together with the bones below the skull is formed via endochondral ossification.

D. There are five cervical vertebrae.

 

10. The rib cage consist of:

A. Thoracic vertebrae, clavicle, ribs and sternum

B. Cervical vertebrae, clavicle,  ribs and sternum

C. Thoracic vertebrae, ribs and sternum

D. Cervical vertebrae, ribs and sternum.

 

11. Primary ossification takes place at:

A. Proximal epiphysis

B. Distal epiphysis

C. Diaphysis

D. Metaphysis

 

12. The false ribs are:

A. Ribs 1-7

B. Ribs 1-5

C. Ribs 8-12

D. Ribs 8-10

 

13. Facial bones include:

A. Mandible and maxilla

B. Vomer and nasal conchae

C. All of the above

D. None of the above.

 

14. The sternum is connected to the ribs by:

A. Bony matter

B. Connective tissue

C. Hyaline cartilage

D. Fibrous cartilage

 

15. The adult human appendicular skeleton consist of:

A. 126 bones

B. 206 bones

C. 80 bones

D. 120 bones

 

16. Which of the following is part of the pectoral girdle?

A. Sternum

B. Clavicle

C. Humerus

D. Pelvic bone

 

17. The interrosseous membrane is found between:

A. Ulna and radius

B. Tibia and fibula

C. A and B

D. B only.

 

18. Anterior to the cranial cavity is?

A. Sphenoid bone

B. Temporal bone

C. Maxilla

D. Frontal bone

 

19. The weakest point of the clavicle is:

A. The medial curve

B. The lateral curve

C. The junction between the curves

D. The flat end

 

20. The hip bones unite anteriorly at:

A. Sacroiliac joint

B. Acetabulum

C. Pubic symphysis

D. Iliopectineal line.

 

21. The glenoid cavity is located in which of these bones?

A. Clavicle

B. Humerus

C. Bony pelvis

D. Scapula

 

21. The vertebral border of the scapula is the same as its:

A. Medial border

B. Lateral border

C. Superior border

D. Inferior border

 

22. Which among these bones is unpaired?

A. Vomer

B. Palatine

C. Maxilla

D. Lacrimal.

 

23. The suture located between the parietal and temporal bone is the:

A. Frontal suture

B. Squamous suture

C. Lambdoid suture

D. Sagittal suture

 

24. How many bones are in the right upper limb excluding the pectoral girdle?

A. 64

B. 60

C. 32

D. 30

 

25. During the formation of cartilage, the extracellular matrix is laid by:

A. Chondroblast

B. Chondrocyte

C. Osteoblast

D. Osteocyte

 

26. Osteiod refers to uncalcified bone matrix laid by:

A. Osteoblast

B. Osteocyte

C. Osteoclast

D. Osteopores

 

27. The healing process of cartilage is relatively slow due to:

A. Absence of vascular penetration

B. Its location

C. Too much friction around it.

D. Its resistance to drugs.

 

28. Production of red blood cells occur in which part of the bone?

A. Epiphysis

B. Periosteum

C. Endosteum

D. Medullary cavity

 

29. Bone remodelling is the primary function of:

A. Osteoblast

B. Osteocyte

C. Osteoclast

D. Osteiod

 

30. Cartilage can be found at the following locations except:

A. Intervertebral disk

B. Hip joint

C. Skin epidermis

D. Pinna

 

31. A unique feature of spongy bone is?

A. Possession of red bone marrow

B. Highly organized and composed of osteons

C. Possession of yellow bone marrow

D. Constitute 80% of total bone mass

 

32. The cartilage commonly found at the end of long bones and ribs is?

A. Hyaline cartilage

B. Fibrocartilage

C. Elastic cartilage

D. Costal cartilage

 

33. The purpose of the rib cage is to:

A. Protect the ribs and sternum

B. Protect the heart and lungs

C. Provide attachment for the lung

D. Provide flexibility of the vertebral column

 

34. Chondrocytes lie in spaces known as:

A. Trabeculae

B. Medullary cavity

C. Chondrophones

D. Lacunae

 

35. Osteoarthritis is caused by:

A. Degenerated knee joint

B. Wear and tear of articular cartilage

C. Loosed bone ligaments

D. Absence of synovial fluid

 

36.  The major component of bone matrix is:

A. Osteiod

B. Collagen and calcium phosphate

C. Collagen and elastic fibres

D. Osteoblast and osteocyte

 

37. Which of these statements is incorrect?

A. The adult human appendicular skeleton consist of 80 bones

B. Infants have more individual bones than adults

C. The clavicle is formed via intramembranous ossification

D. Bones below the skull are formed via endochondral ossification

 

38. The shaft of a long bone is called?

A. Epiphysis

B. Diaphysis

C  Metaphysis

D. Periosteum

 

39. The best description of endochondral ossification is?

A. Formation of bone from its cartilage model

B. Formation of bone from mesenchyme

C. Formation of flat bones of the skull

D. Formation of humerus

 

40. Bones of the axial skeleton can be grouped into:

A. Skull, ossocles, hyoid, vertebral column, and rib cage.

B. Pectoral girdle, pelvic girdle, upper limb bones and lower limb bones.

C. Forearm bones, arm bone and hand bones

D. Cranial bones, facial bones, vertebral column and rib cage.

 

41. Another name for the brain case is?

A. Occiput

B. Cranium

C. Medullary oblongata.

D. Skull

 

42. The base of the skull is formed by;

A. Frontal bone

B. Sphenoid bone

C. Hyoid bone

D. Occipital bone

 

43. The foramen magnum is found in which bone?

A. Clavicle

B. Temporal bone

C. Mandible

D. Occipital bone

 

44. Which of these is not a facial bone?

A. Maxilla

B. Frontal bone

C. Zygomatic bone

D. Vomer

 

45. The keystone bone of the cranium is:

A. Ethmoid

B. Frontal

C. Hyoid

D. Sphenoid

 

46. The only movable bone of the skull is:

A. Mandible

B. Maxilla

C. Vomer

D. Nasal bone

 

47. The parietal bones are joined by:

A. Coronal suture

B. Lambdoid suture

C. Sagittal suture

D. Squamous suture

 

48. Which of these statements is true about the hyoid bone?

A. It forms part of the vertebral column

B. It articulates with the sternum inferiorly

C. It is the bone at the neck

D. It provides attachment for muscles that aids swallowing

 

49. One of these is not a function of the vertebral column:

A. Protection of the brain

B. Support to the head and trunk

C. Total protection of spinal nerves

D. Site for muscle attachment

 

50. Pick the correct statement:

A. The vertebral body increase in size down the vertebral column

B. Weight bearing is the major function of the thoracic vertebrae

C. The spinal cord passes through the vertebral arch

D. The tail bone is formed by sacrum and cococcyx.

 

 

51. How many lumbar vertebrae are in an adult human skeleton?

A. 6

B. 7

C. 5

D. 12

 

52. The 'yes' motion is permitted by:

A. Cervical vertebrae

B. Hyoid bone

C. Axis

D. Atlas

 

53. Another name for the coccyx is:

A. Atlas

B. Axis

C. Pelvic bone

D. Tailbone

 

54. The false ribs are;

A. Ribs 1-7

B. Ribs 6, 7 and 8

C. Ribs 8, 9 10

D. Ribs 11 and 12

 

55. The parts of the sternum include:

A. Manubrium, and xiphoid process

B. Manubrium, coccyx and xiphoid process

C. Manubrium, body and xiphoid process.

D. Manubrium and coccyx

56. Bones of the pectoral girdle include:

A. Clavicle and scapula

B. Hip bone and femur

C. Clavicle, scapula and humerus

D. Ilium, ischium and

 pubis.

 

57.The acromioclavicular joint is formed by the acromion of the scapula and:

A. The medial surface of the clavicle

B. The lateral surface of the clavicle

C. The superior surface of the clavicle

D. The inferior surface of the clavicle.

 

58. The humerus has two distal protuberances called:

A. Capitulum and trochlea

B. Radius and ulna

C. Acromion and glenoid cavity

D. Interosseous membrane

 

59. Which of these statements is false about radius and ulna?

A. They articulate with one another both proximally and distally.

B. The radius is medial while the ulna is lateral

C. They are also connected via interosseous membrane

 

60. The right and left hip bones unite anteriorly at:

A. Pubic symphysis

B. Sacroiliac joint

C. Hip joint

D. Acetabulum

 

61. The socket of the hip joint is called:

A. Obturator foramen

B. Foramen magnum

C. Ischial tuberosity

D. Acetabulum.

 

62. "The false pelvis has no obstetrical relevance". This statement implies that:

A. It does not contribute significantly to child bearing

B. It is of no use to the body

C. It is smooth and devoid of obstructions

D. Obstetricians and midwives do not need to study it.

 

63. The longest bone in the human body is:

A. Humerus

B. Vertebral column

C. Femur

D. Tibia.

 

64. The shape of the coccyx is?

A. Triangular

B. Ellipsoid

C. Heart shaped

D. Diagonal

 

65. The sternoclavicular joint is formed between the clavicle and:

A. Manubrium of sternum

B. Body of sternum

C. Xiphoid process

D. Shaft of sternum.

 

66. The shoulder blade is:

A. Humerus

B. Clavicle

C. Scapula

D. Atlas.

 

67. Inferior to the greater and lesser tubercles of the humerus is the:

A. Shaft

B. Anatomical neck

C. Surgical neck

D. Deltoid tuberosity.

 

68. The prominence of the elbow is formed by:

A. Coronoid process

B. Styloid process

C. Radial process

D. Olecranon process.

 

69. The proximal carpal bones are:

A. Scaphoid, Lunate, Triquetrium and Pisiform

B. Scaphoid Lunate, Trapezoid, Pisiform

C. Trapezium,  Trapezoid, Capitate, Hamate

 

D. Trapezium, Triquetrium, Capitate, Hamate.

 

70. The largest carpal bone is?

A. Scaphoid

B. Trapezium

C. Triquetrium

D. Capitate.

 

71. How many phalanges are in both hands?

A. 10

B. 15

C. 28

D. 30

 

72. Which of the following is the most superior of the tarsals and articulates with the distal end of the tibia?

A. Calcaneus

B. Cuneiform

C. Navicuar

D. Talus

 

73. The greater sciatic notch is located on the:

 A.  Ilium

 B.  Ischium

 C.  Pubis

 D.  Sacrum

 

 

 

74. What makes bones so strong?

A. Silica

B. Cartilage

C. Blood and marrow

D. Calcium and phosphorous

 

75. The medullary cavity in long bones is filled with:

A. Blood cells

B. Bone cells

C. Bone marrow

D. Antibodies

 

76. One major component of a joint is?

A. Tendon

B. Ligament

C. Muscle

D. Cartilage

 

 

77. The formation of bone tissue directly from mesenchyme is:

A. Endochondral ossification

B. Intramembranous ossification

C. Chondrification

D. Chondrogenesis

 

78. The flat bones of the cranium are formed by:

A. Endochondral ossification

B. Intramembranous ossification

C. Chondrification

D. Chondrogenesis

 

79. During cartilage formation, the matrix is laid down by:

A. Chondrocytes

B. Chondroblasts

C. Osteocytes

D. Osteoblasts

 

80. Wear and tear of articular cartilage with age can result to:

A. Osteoarthritis

B. Rheumatism

C. Fracture

D. Dislocation

 

 

 

 

 

 

Answers

1.  D

2.  B

3.  A

4.  A

5.  A

6.  C

7.  A

8.  C

9.  C

10.             C

11.             C

12.             D

13.             C

14.             C

15.             A

16.             B

17.             C

18.             D

19.             C

20.             C

21.             D

22.             A

23.             B

24.             D

25.             A

26.             A

27.             A

28.             D

29.             C

30.             C

31.             A

32.             A

33.             B

34.             D

35.             B

36.             B

37.             A

38.             B

39.             A

40.             A

41.             B

42.             D

43.             D

44.             B

45.             D

46.             A

47.             C

48.             D

49.             A

50.             B

51.             C

52.             D

53.             D

54.             C

55.             C

56.             A

57.             B

58.             A

59.             B

60.             A

61.             D

62.             A

63.             C

64.             A

65.             A

66.             C

67.             C

68.             A

69.             A

70.             D

71.             C

72.             D

73.             A

74.             D

75.             C

76.             All

77.             B

78.             B

79.             B

80.             A

 

 

Few questions repeated. It is an old compilation. An update will be sent by January